1. The water content of a hydrophilic lens is
a. 38%
b. >80%
c. <34.6%
d. 26.8%
2. Lenses of high water content fit _____ as they dehydrate
a. looser
b. tighter
c. the same
d. larger
3. Which of the following soft lens deposits do the most damage to the lens surface?
a. calcium carbonate
b. calcium phosphate
c. protein carbons
d. lipid deposits
4. The advantage of a minus carrier lenticular lens is
a. it reduces the diameter of the lens
b. it has a small anterior optical zone
c. it enables the lid to keep the lens in position
d. it positions a minus lens away from the upper lid
5. Which of the following instruments is used to measure the optical zone of a contact lens?
a. radiuscope
b. lensometer
c. distometer
d. measuring magnifier
6. The distance between the upper and lower eyelids is called the
a. blepharofissure
b. palpebral fissure
c. tarsal aperture
d. limbal fissure
7. The B&L keratometer extends from a range of
a. 42 to 48D
b. 28 to 50D
c. 36 to 52D
d. 40 to 49D
23. All of the following are functions performed by the precorneal film except
a. provides the tears which occur when crying
b. acts as a lubricant to the cornea
c. provides a smooth optical surface for the cornea
d. provides nutrition to the cornea
24. If a myopic patient is corrected with contact lenses for distance, what type of accommodative effort for near vision would be required compared to glasses?
a. more effort
b. less effort
c. the same effort
d. no effort
25. If the base curve of a contact lens was ordered 7.40mm and the lens received measures 7.45mm,
a. it is 0.25D flatter than the lens ordered
b. it is 0.25D steeper than the lens ordered
c. it is 0.50D flatter than the lens ordered
d. it is 0.50D steeper than the lens ordered
26. Before using any keratometer, it is necessary to
a. focus the mires
b. focus the eyepiece
c. rotate the drum
d. lock the instrument into position
27. A contraindication for fitting corneal contact lenses is
a. keratoconus
b. corneal transplant
c. keratitis sicca
d. subnormal vision
28. The transition zone between the cornea and the conjunctiva/sclera is called the
a. optical zone
b. conjunctival fornix
c. corneal limbus
d. meibomian zone
29. If the diameter of an RGP lens is 9.2mm and is fitting too steep on the cornea, what adjustment could be made to the lens?
a. decrease the thickness
b. increase the diameter
c. increase the thickness
d. decrease the diameter
30. A patient complains of pain in his right eye. Upon biomicroscopic examination, you discover an embedded foreign body. You should:
a. use a small pair of tweezers to remove the foreign body
b. advise the patient to leave the lens out for a few days and return for a check up before reinserting it
c. send the patient to an optometrist
d. irrigate the eye with irrigating solution to rinse bacteria from the wound
31. An RGP lens of 9.3 diameter is fitting too steep. Without reordering the lens you might,
a. try to increase the diameter
b. increase the CPC of the lens
c. decrease the diameter of the lens
d. decrease the CPC of the lens.
32. All of the following are symptoms of a tight fitting soft contact lens except
a. lid sensation
b. burning
c. stinging
d. cloudy vision
33. A soft lens wearer has been successfully wearing her lens for two years. She now complains of poor vision. Upon inspection, you find that the lenses are riding high under the upper eyelid. This is most likely caused by
a. lens fitted too tight
b. lens fitted too loose
c. lens fitted too small
d. lens deteriorated and dirty
34. Secretion from which of the following form the oily layer of the pre-corneal tear film?
a. lacrimal gland
b. platter cells
c. meibomian gland
d. goblet cells
35. Peripheral limbal staining at 3 and 9 oclock is a result of
a. incorrect insertion
b. incomplete blinking causing exposure
c. corneal infiltrates
d. too small of a lens diameter
36. Corneal edema from wearing contact lenses is usually caused by
a. hypoxia/ anoxia
b. exposure to wind, creating exposure
c. excessive blinking
d. a flat fitting lens
37. The base curve of an RGP is best checked using a
a. keratometer
b. radiuscope
c. radius dial gauge
d. measuring magnifier
38. Reducing the diameter of a rigid lens
a. decreases the movement
b. increases the sagittal depth
c. decreased the sagittal depth
d. increases the optical zone
39. Increasing the sagittal depth of a rigid lens will
a. reduce the effective power of the lens
b. increase the effective power of the lens
c. not change the effective power of the lens
d. require you to use the SAM/FAP rules
40. Lens power must be adjusted for a vertex power over
a. +/- 4D
b. +/- 7D
c. +8.50D
d. -7.00D
41. An AO (Reichert) radiuscope measure the base curve of a lens in increments of
a. 0.02mm
b. 0.002mm
c. 0.12D
d. 0.20mm
42. A lens which shows a darker concentration of fluorescein dye in the center of the lens but get lighter in intensity as it approaches the periphery of the lens might be fitting:
a. flat
b. steep
c. parallel to the cornea
d. too ssmall
43. A lens which has a greater concentration of fluorescein dye around the periphery but gets lighter in intensity as it approaches the center of the lens might be fitting
a. flat
b. steep
c. parallel to the cornea
d. too small
44. When a rigid lens is fitting too steep, you might correct this situation by
a. increasing the radius of curvature
b. decreased the radius of curvature
c. increasing the diameter of the lens
d. increasing the CPC of the lens
45. You evaluate a patient and determine: K 44.00@180/45.00@090. Manifest Rx is -3.00 -1.00 x180. You design a lens 44.50 -3.50 9.3. it is received from the lab as 44.50 -3.50 9.0. the effective power of the lens at the 180 degree meridian will be:
a. -3.50
b. -2.50
c. -3.00
d. -4.00
46. Which of the following is an example of With The Rule Astigmatism?
a. 42.50@30/ 42.75@120
b. 42.50@090/43.00@180
c. 44.00@180/43.00@090
d. 44.00@090/42.00@180
47. Given an Rx of -4.00 +0.75 x090 and K readings of 43.50@180/44.25@090, a lens designed on K would have an effective sphere power of
a. -4.00
b. -3.25
c -3.75
d. -4.50
48. If the above lens was accurately designed with a CPC of 44.00D, the actual lens power would be
a. -3.75
b. -3.25
c. -4.50
d. -4.00
49. If the same lens was accurately designed with CPC of 44.00D, the effective sphere power of the lens would be
a. -4.00
b. -3.25
c. -4.50
d. -3.75
50. If this same lens was accurately designed with a CPC pf 44.00D, the efefctive power at the 90 degree meridian would be
a. -3.25
b. -4.00
c. -3.50
d. -4.50
51. Given an Rx of -3.50 -2.00 x180, K 42.50@180/452.75@090, the easiest lens to fit would be a
a. bitoric rigid lens
b. toric soft lens
c. front surface toric rigid lens
d. spherical RGP lens
52. The advantage of a plus lenticular lens is
a. it reduces the optical zone of a lens
b. it allows a high minus lens to ride lower
c. it reduces the weight of a high plus lens
d. it allows a high plus lens to ride high
53. Given an Rx of +12.00 +1.00 x105 and vertex distance of 12mm, what power would be used to design a contact lens?
a. +10.50
b. +11.50
c. +15.50
d. +17.00
54. One advantage of a Fluorocarbon lens is
a. high wetting angle
b. high Dk value
c. high water content
d. thin center thickness
55. The best method to fit a patient with keratoconus is with a
a. toric soft lens
b. bitoric rigid lens
c. trial lens evaluation
d. keratometer reading
56. Which of the following cannot be modified on a contact lens?
a. power
b. diameter
c. radius?
d. sagittal depth
57. Growth of blood vessels into the cornea is called
a. avascularization
b. vascularization
c. keratitis
d. keratoconus
58. An advantage of a thin, high water content lens is
a. low Dk value
b. thin center thickness
c. high Dk value
flexibility of material
59. All of the following are layers of the cornea except
a. Descemet's membrane
b. Stroman's membrane
c. Epithelium
d. Endothelium
60. A possible problem of using cold chemical disinfection might be
a. chemical conjunctivitis
b. chemical blepharitis
c. viral keratitis
d. endophthalmitis
61. A patient returns for follow-up care with a rhino-virus and is taking an over-the-counter decongetant/ antihistamine. A possible side effect is
a. corneal dehydration
b. increased thickness of the crystalline lens
c. increased lacrimation
d. edema of the puncta
62. A concern with the use of extended wear lenses is
a. decreased corneal thickness
b. polymegathism
c. decreased lacrimation
d. tarsal edema
63. Patients with extended wear soft lenses should remove, clean, and disinfect their lenses at least
a. weekly
b. bimonthly
c. every ninety days
d. once every six months
64. A computer operator returns for follow-up care and complains of intermittent blur between blinks. Your initial impression is:
a. prescription is too weak
b. prescription is too strong
c. fixation dehydration
d. residular astigmatism
65. You patient returns for follow-up with soft lenses. After removing a lens you observe corneal indentation. To correct this, you decide to:
a. increase the diameter of the lens
b. decrease the radius of curvature
c. decrease the thickness of the lens
d. increase the radius of curvature of the lens
66. Your patient returns for follow-up after two months of wearing soft daily lenses of greater than 55% water content. You observe brown discoloration to the lens. You decide the problem might be:
a. sorbic acid preserved solution
b. peroxide oxidizing disinfection
c. low heat aseptic techniques
d. rinsing with non=preserved saline
67. The dioptric power of a lens is measure by a
a. radiuscope
b. spherometer
c. lensometer
d. ophthalmometer
68. Truncation is used to
a. increase the power of a lens
b. aid in meridional stabilization
c. correct residual astigmatism
d. decrease the power of a lens
69. Front surface rigid toric lenses are used
a. to correct corneal astigmatism of greater than 2.50D
b. when corneal astigmatism is less than 3.00D and refractive astigmatism is greater than 0.75D stronger than the amount of corneal astigmatism
c. when corneal astigmatism is less than 3.00D and the amount of refractive astigmatism is equal to the amount of corneal astigmatism
d. when corneal astigmatism is greater than 3.00D and the amount of refractive astigmatism is not greater than 0.75D stronger than the amount of corneal astigmatism
70. The process by which the cornea maintains itself in its partially dehydrated state is known as
a. deturgescence
b. specular illumination
c. scleroctic aura
d. hypoxia
71. A protein found in the tear that is a potent germ killer is
a. glucose
b. lysozyme
c. enzyme
d. mucous
72. Oxygen is delivered to the cornea by the
a. tarsal conjunctiva
b. precorneal tearfilm
c. meibomian gland
d. lacrimal gland
73. When trial lens fitting a soft lens patient, after placing the lens you should
a. allow the lens to settle twenty minutes before evaluation
b. observe the fit with the biomicroscope immediately after inserting the lens
c. evaluate acuity within 5 minutes
d. not allow the lens to remain on the cornea greater than 15 minutes
74. A soft lens of water content greater than 60% cannot be disinfected by
a. enzyme systems
b. peroxide oxidizing systems
c. low heat aseptic techniques
d. cold chemical disinfection
75. Blepharitis is a condition the affects the
a. eyelash follicles
b. meibomian orifices
c. lacrimal lens
d. corneal thickness
76. The average index of refraction of the cornea is
a. 1.537
b. 1.495
c. 1.376
d. 1.623
77. Which of the following might contraindicate the use of soft contact lenses?
a. rheumatoid arthritis
b. diabetes mellitus
s. surgically repaired retinal detachment
d. surgical aphakia
78. A patient with pseudoaphakia will require
a. prescription for near acuity
b. prescription for residual myopia
c. prescription fo residual hyperopia
d. prescription for convergence insufficiency
79. A Burton lamp is
a. used to evaluate fluorescein pattern
b. a high intensity bulb for the slit lamp
c. an instrument used to transilluminate the cornea
d. a cobalt blue bulb for the keratometer
80. The free living protozoa, Acanthamoeba, is more likleyfound in
a. peroxide oxidizing disinfection systems
b. cold chemical disinfection systems
c. homemade saline solutions
d. on the surface of rigid lenses
81. An advantage of fluoro/Silicone/Acryltae monomer is
a. high wetting angle
b. low wetting angle
c. low Dk value
d. high water content
82. Which of the following lens materials should not be evaluated with sodium fluorescein?
a. PMMA
b. HEMA
c. RGP
d. PO2
83. An advantage of a silicone/ acrylate lens is
a. allows simple refraction of light
b. allows faster deswelling of the cornea
c. eliminates blink rate
d. promotes desensitivity of the cornea
84. A possible cause for edge sensation of a rigid lens wearer is
a. lens too steep
b. lens too flat
c. lens too large
d. radius too short
85. A possible cause of blur when reading with an RGP lens might be
a. poor centration
b. overpowered plus
c. lens too large
d. lens too thick
86. A reason to discover bubbles under and RGP lens might be
a. lens too thick
b. lens too large
c. lens too small
d. lens too flate
87. The cause of 3 and 9 oclock staining observed on an RGP wearer might be caused by
a. lens too flate
b. incomplete blink
c. excessive lacrimation
d. foreign body trapped under the lens
88. An annular bifocal contact lens is a type of
a. concentric bifocal contact lens
b. segment type bifocal contact lens
c. monovision design for near vision
d. fused bifocal contact lens
89. A contraindication for rigid bifocal contact lenses is
a. reading add of greater than +2.00D
b. corneal astigmatism if greater than 3.00D
c. hyperopic refractionfor distance
d. when flatter K is greater than 44.00D
90. Which of the following can be used to evaluate the proper blend of an RGP lens?
a. radiuscope
b. shadowgraph
c. fluorescent tubes
d. lensometer
91. Which of the following is an example of Against the Rule Astigmatism?
a. 44.50 @090/42.50@180
b. 44.50@180/42.50@090
c. 42.50@170/43.50@080
d. 41.75@135/42.50@45
92. Dk values refer to
a. dioptric power of the cornea
b. water content of a hydrophilic lens
c. ability of oxygen to pass through a substance
d. ability of water to pass through a hydrophilic lens
93. The purpose of the topogometer is
a. to determine the steepest curvature of the cornea
b. to determine the flattest curvature of the cornea
c. to measure the diameter of the apex of the cornea
d. to measure the meridian of corneal astigmatism
94. Which of the following is a contraindication for fitting contact lenses?
a. anesthetic cornea
b. anisometropia
c. diplopia
d. aniseikonia
95. Which of the following is a contraindication for fitting contact lenses?
a. pannus
b. corneal scar
c. aniridia
d. postoperative bleb
96. While ealuating the fluorescein pattern of a rigid lens you determine that the lens vaults the cornea, is parallel in the periphery, and flares out at the edges. you decide that
a. lens fits flat at the periphery
b. fits steep over the apex
c. is well fitted
d. is too flat at the edges
97. A mosaic pattern is observe don the cornea with fluorescein. A possible cause might be:
a. lens too flat
b. neovascularization
c. rubbing eyelids
d. pannus ilfiltrate
98. One method of fitting a patient with keratoconus is
a. Soper-type lenses
b. large diameter with narrow periphera; curves
c. Camp-fused lenses
d. annular lenses
99. The McGuire lens is used for the fitting of
a. keratoconus
b. soft bifocals
c. rigid bifocals
d. corneal scarring
100. Orthokeratology may be defined as
a. automated corneal measurement as determined by computerized keratometry
b. reduction of refractive errors by corneal molding with contact lens applications
c. corneal rehabilitation of distorted corneas caused by long-term wear of flate-fitting lenses
d. the fitting of scleral molded lenses for visual restoration of irregularity distorted corneas